/u/[deleted]'s posts in /r/AskHistorians
Why did countries with different languages change the names of famous people to fit the language. E.G. Cristoforo Colombo to Cristobal Colon to Christopher Columbus. Did they do this back then or is this a more modern change for historical purposes.
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After the WW2 was there a feeling of regret in Sweden and/or Finland that, the Swedes did not commit 100% after the USSR attacked?
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How were the Crusaders able to capture Constantinople in 1204 while the Ottomans had difficulty doing so with a far less populated city in 1453?
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The Catholic church stamped out non catholic Christians for hundreds of years during the dark ages and the middle ages. Why did Protestantism succeed while others failed?
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